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CFA Level I · CFA Level I Exam · Fixed-Income Markets for Corporate Issuers

A corporation issues a 10-year bond with a sinking fund requiring it to retire 10% of the original principal each year starting in Year 1, either by calling bonds at par or buying them in the open market. Bonds are currently trading at 96% of par. Which action is the issuer most likely to take for the Year 1 requirement, and why?

The issuer will most likely buy bonds in the open market. With bonds trading at 96% of par, repurchasing retires the required face value at a lower cost than calling at par. The sinking fund obligation starts in Year 1, so deferral is not allowed.

  1. ACall bonds at par, because call price is fixed and certain
  2. BBuy bonds in the market, because the price is below parCorrect
  3. CDefer the retirement, because the requirement applies only at maturity

Explanation

When the market price is below the par call price, repurchasing in the open market costs the issuer less to retire the same face value. Calling at par would cost 4% of face more. Deferral is wrong because the sinking fund requires annual retirement beginning in Year 1.

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