CA Foundation · Quantitative Aptitude · Mathematics of Finance
Which of the following correctly relates the future value of an annuity due (FV_due) to the future value of an ordinary annuity (FV_ord) for the same payment, rate and number of periods, with interest rate i per period?
The future value of an annuity due equals the future value of the ordinary annuity multiplied by (1 + i). Every payment is made one period earlier, so it earns one more period of interest, which scales the whole accumulated amount by the factor (1 + i).
- AFV_due = FV_ord × (1 + i)Correct
- BFV_due = FV_ord ÷ (1 + i)
- CFV_due = FV_ord + i
- DFV_due = FV_ord × (1 − i)
Explanation
In an annuity due each payment is made one period earlier than in an ordinary annuity, so each payment earns interest for one extra period. The whole future value is therefore multiplied by (1 + i). Dividing by (1 + i) would apply to present values or reduce the amount, which is wrong.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Mathematics of Finance shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Mathematics of Finance questions
- Mr. Verma invests ₹40,000 at a nominal rate of 10% per annum compounded half-yearly. What will be the interest earned by him in the first ye…
- A sum of money amounts to ₹13,600 in 4 years and to ₹15,400 in 6 years at the same rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest per…
- Mr. Agarwal will receive ₹1,21,000 exactly two years from today. If money earns 10% per annum compounded annually, what is the present value…
- A machine depreciates on the reducing balance method at a fixed annual rate. Its value falls from ₹6,40,000 to ₹4,09,600 in 3 years. What is…
- Patel Foods invests ₹1,00,000 in a project that returns ₹1,21,000 at the end of 2 years, with no other cash flows. What is the internal rate…
- A firm will receive ₹5,000 at the end of each of the next 2 years. At a discount rate of 10% per annum, what is the present value of these r…