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FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Factor Theory

Which statement best distinguishes a risk-based explanation from a behavioral explanation for the existence of a factor premium such as value?

A risk-based explanation says the factor premium compensates investors for bearing losses in bad economic times, whereas a behavioral explanation says it stems from investor biases or errors that persist because of limits to arbitrage. The two differ in the source of the premium, not in market correlation.

  1. AA risk-based explanation holds that the premium compensates investors for bearing losses in bad times, while a behavioral explanation attributes it to investor biases or errors that may not be arbitraged awayCorrect
  2. BA risk-based explanation holds that the premium arises from mispricing, while a behavioral explanation holds that it compensates for systematic risk
  3. CBoth explanations imply the premium should vanish once it is publicly known and widely traded
  4. DBoth explanations require the factor to have a zero correlation with the market portfolio

Explanation

Risk-based theories link premiums to compensation for systematic risk and bad-time losses; behavioral theories link them to persistent biases combined with limits to arbitrage. The reversed statement is wrong, and neither theory requires zero market correlation.

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