CS Executive · Corporate Accounting and Financial Management · Capital Budgeting
Sundaram Ltd. is evaluating a project with an initial outlay of ₹1,00,000 and a single expected cash inflow of ₹1,32,000 at the end of year 1. The risk-free rate is 10% and the certainty-equivalent coefficient for the year 1 cash flow is 0.80. What is the NPV using the certainty-equivalent method?
The certain cash flow is ₹1,32,000 x 0.80 = ₹1,05,600. Discounting at the 10% risk-free rate gives a present value of ₹96,000. Subtracting the ₹1,00,000 outlay gives an NPV of negative ₹4,000, so the project should be rejected.
- A- ₹4,000Correct
- B₹20,000
- C- ₹100
- D₹32,000
Explanation
Certain cash flow = 1,32,000 x 0.80 = 1,05,600. Discounted at the risk-free rate of 10%: 1,05,600/1.10 = 96,000. NPV = 96,000 - 1,00,000 = -4,000. Option B wrongly discounts without adjusting, giving 1,20,000 - 1,00,000 = 20,000.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Capital Budgeting shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Capital Budgeting questions
- In capital budgeting, the certainty-equivalent approach to handling risk works by:
- A project generates additional annual cash revenue of Rs 8,00,000 and cash expenses of Rs 5,00,000, with annual depreciation of Rs 1,00,000.…
- Under single-period capital rationing, Anand Ltd has ₹10 lakh available. Divisible projects: A needs ₹4 lakh with NPV ₹2 lakh; B needs ₹4 la…
- Rohan Pharma is considering a project costing Rs 1,00,000 that produces Rs 60,000 at the end of each of the next 2 years. Using the discount…
- While estimating incremental cash flows for a new project, which of the following should be EXCLUDED from the analysis?
- In the capital budgeting process, which sequence of stages is the most logical?