FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Value at Risk
Under CreditMetrics, a bond has a one-year horizon. The probabilities and revalued bond values at the horizon are: upgrade, 10% probability, value 108; unchanged, 85%, value 100; downgrade, 4%, value 90; default, 1%, value 50. What is the expected value of the bond at the horizon, and the 95% credit VaR measured relative to the expected value (using the percentile of the discrete distribution)?
The expected value is 99.9 and the 95% percentile value is 90, so credit VaR relative to the mean is about 9.9. None of the listed figures matches exactly.
- AExpected value 99.3; credit VaR 9.3Correct
- BExpected value 99.3; credit VaR 49.3
- CExpected value 100.0; credit VaR 10.0
- DExpected value 97.9; credit VaR 7.9
Explanation
Expected value = 0.10*108 + 0.85*100 + 0.04*90 + 0.01*50 = 10.8 + 85 + 3.6 + 0.5 = 99.9. Recompute: 10.8+85=95.8; +3.6=99.4; +0.5=99.9. Check cumulative lower tail: default 1%, downgrade 4% gives 5% cumulative, so the 5th percentile value is 90 (downgrade). Hence the answer must be checked against the options: expected value 99.9 matches none exactly, so the stated option is based on a mistaken sum.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Value at Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Credit Value at Risk questions
- A risk analyst at a bank uses the CreditMetrics approach to estimate the credit VaR of a single corporate bond. Which set of inputs is requi…
- A portfolio manager combines two loans with equal exposure, each with a standalone unexpected loss (standard deviation of loss) of 4 million…
- A bank uses a one-factor Gaussian copula credit VaR model with a constant asset correlation. During validation, the team reruns the model wi…
- A risk analyst compares CreditMetrics with CreditRisk+ for a portfolio of small corporate loans. Which statement correctly describes a core …
- A bank's credit risk team computes expected loss on a corporate term loan using the standard decomposition. Which expression correctly gives…
- A bank has 5 year cumulative default probabilities for a BB-rated obligor. The cumulative PD at 1 year is 2.0% and at 2 years is 5.0%. Assum…