FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Value at Risk
A risk analyst compares CreditMetrics with CreditRisk+ for a portfolio of small corporate loans. Which statement correctly describes a core feature of CreditRisk+?
CreditRisk+ is an actuarial default-only model. It treats the number of defaults as Poisson-distributed and ignores rating migration and asset-value dynamics. Revaluation after migration belongs to CreditMetrics, and asset-value links belong to structural models, so the Poisson default-frequency description is the correct one.
- AIt models default only, using a Poisson-type frequency of defaults with no link to the firm's asset valueCorrect
- BIt values each loan by revaluing it after a rating migration
- CIt requires a Monte Carlo simulation of asset returns for every obligor
- DIt assumes the default probability of each obligor is driven by the firm's equity volatility
Explanation
CreditRisk+ is an actuarial, default-only model that treats the number of defaults as Poisson-distributed and does not model rating migration or asset values. Revaluation after migration is CreditMetrics, and asset-value or equity-volatility links are structural models such as Merton/KMV. CreditRisk+ is solved analytically, not by simulation.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Value at Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Credit Value at Risk questions
- A portfolio has three independent loans, each with exposure of USD 10 million, a one-year default probability of 2%, and loss given default …
- A portfolio holds two loans, each of exposure USD 10 million, with LGD of 100% and a one-year default probability of 4% for each. The defaul…
- A risk analyst compares the KMV approach with the basic Merton model for estimating default probabilities. Which statement about KMV is corr…
- Two obligors, A and B, each have a one-year default probability of 10%. The joint default probability is 2%. What is the default correlation…
- A risk analyst compares through-the-cycle (TTC) and point-in-time (PIT) PD estimates for a portfolio during a sharp economic downturn. Which…
- A bank's credit VaR model produces a 99.9% one-year loss of 180 million on a portfolio with expected loss of 40 million. A validator replace…