FRM Exam Part II · Credit Value at Risk
Single-Factor Model and Vasicek Credit VaR Explained
Updated 11 October 2026 · Fact-checked
The single-factor model links each borrower's default to one common market factor plus its own shock. The Vasicek formula gives the default rate conditional on a bad factor outcome: WCDR = N[(N⁻¹(PD) + √ρ × N⁻¹(0.999)) ÷ √(1 − ρ)]. Basel IRB uses it to set capital.
Understand Single-Factor Model and Vasicek Credit VaR
Start with one borrower. In the Merton view, it defaults when a latent asset value falls below a threshold. If the unconditional default probability is PD, the threshold is N⁻¹(PD), where N is the standard normal CDF.
Now take many borrowers. Each one's latent variable is Xᵢ = √ρ × M + √(1 − ρ) × Zᵢ. M is the common factor (the state of the economy). Zᵢ is the idiosyncratic shock. Both are standard normal and independent. ρ is the asset correlation between any two borrowers. This setup is the Gaussian copula single-factor model: it ties all defaults together through one normal factor.
Fix the factor at a value M. Defaults are then independent, and the conditional default probability is PD(M) = N[(N⁻¹(PD) − √ρ × M) ÷ √(1 − ρ)]. A low M (bad economy) raises PD(M).
In a large homogeneous portfolio, idiosyncratic risk diversifies away. The default rate then equals PD(M). The worst case default rate at confidence X is found by setting M = N⁻¹(1 − X), the bad tail. This gives WCDR(X) = N[(N⁻¹(PD) + √ρ × N⁻¹(X)) ÷ √(1 − ρ)]. Credit VaR is the loss from this rate: WCDR × EAD × LGD.
Basel IRB builds on this. Capital for unexpected loss is K = LGD × [WCDR(99.9%) − PD], then scaled by a maturity adjustment and a scaling factor in the formulas. Expected loss (PD × LGD) is covered by provisions, so it is subtracted. Higher ρ means fatter tail risk and more capital.
Key formulas to remember
- Latent variable
- Xᵢ = √ρ × M + √(1 − ρ) × Zᵢ
- M, Zᵢ independent standard normals. Default if Xᵢ < N⁻¹(PD).
- Conditional default probability
- PD(M) = N[(N⁻¹(PD) − √ρ × M) ÷ √(1 − ρ)]
- Valid for a given factor value M. Falls as M rises.
- Worst case default rate (Vasicek)
- WCDR(X) = N[(N⁻¹(PD) + √ρ × N⁻¹(X)) ÷ √(1 − ρ)]
- Large homogeneous portfolio. X is the confidence level, e.g. 99.9%.
- Credit VaR
- Credit VaR = WCDR × LGD × EAD
- Total loss at the confidence level. Unexpected-loss capital subtracts PD × LGD × EAD.
- Unexpected loss capital (Basel IRB core)
- K = LGD × [WCDR(99.9%) − PD]
- Before the maturity adjustment and other scaling in the Basel formula.
How to solve Single-Factor Model and Vasicek Credit VaR questions
Use this order for any Vasicek or IRB question.
- 1Write down PD, ρ, confidence level X, LGD and EAD from the question.
- 2Compute N⁻¹(PD) and N⁻¹(X) from the standard normal table.
- 3Compute √ρ and √(1 − ρ).
- 4Plug into the WCDR formula: numerator = N⁻¹(PD) + √ρ × N⁻¹(X), then divide by √(1 − ρ).
- 5Convert the result to a probability with N(·).
- 6Multiply WCDR by LGD and EAD for Credit VaR.
- 7If asked for capital or unexpected loss, subtract PD × LGD × EAD (or use K = LGD × (WCDR − PD)).
- 8Sanity check: WCDR must exceed PD, and rise with ρ and X.
Quickest way: Plug-in shortcut for WCDR
When to use it: Use when PD, ρ and the confidence level are given and the options are numerically spread.
- Memorise N⁻¹(0.99) = 2.326, N⁻¹(0.999) = 3.090.
- Compute the numerator and divide by √(1 − ρ) to get one z-score.
- Convert z to a probability using known anchors: N(−1.645) ≈ 5%, N(−2.326) ≈ 1%, N(0) = 50%.
- Eliminate options below PD or above 100% first, then pick the closest.
Common mistakes in Single-Factor Model and Vasicek Credit VaR
Using a minus sign on N⁻¹(X) in the WCDR formula.
Students mix it up with the conditional PD formula, which uses −√ρ × M.
Fix: In WCDR, M = N⁻¹(1 − X) = −N⁻¹(X), so the sign becomes plus. WCDR must exceed PD.
Forgetting to divide by √(1 − ρ).
The numerator looks complete after adding the two terms.
Fix: Always finish with the division, then apply N(·).
Treating Credit VaR as WCDR × EAD only.
LGD is dropped when the question gives it late.
Fix: Loss = WCDR × LGD × EAD. Check every input is used.
Reporting capital as the full loss rather than unexpected loss.
Expected loss is covered by provisions, but candidates ignore this.
Fix: Capital K = LGD × (WCDR − PD). Subtract expected loss.
Applying the formula to a small, concentrated portfolio.
The formula looks general.
Fix: It assumes a large homogeneous portfolio with one factor, so idiosyncratic risk is fully diversified.
Thinking higher correlation lowers risk.
Confusing it with diversification in market risk.
Fix: Higher ρ makes defaults cluster, so WCDR and capital rise.
Worked examples
Example 1
A large homogeneous loan portfolio has PD = 1%, asset correlation ρ = 0.20. Find the 99.9% worst case default rate. Use N⁻¹(0.01) = −2.326, N⁻¹(0.999) = 3.090, and N(0.30) ≈ 0.618 where needed.
Show the solution
- √ρ = √0.20 = 0.4472; √(1 − ρ) = √0.80 = 0.8944.
- Numerator = −2.326 + 0.4472 × 3.090 = −2.326 + 1.382 = −0.944.
- Divide: −0.944 ÷ 0.8944 = −1.055.
- WCDR = N(−1.055) ≈ 1 − 0.854 = 0.146 (about 14.6%).
Answer: WCDR is about 14.6%, far above the 1% PD, because correlated defaults cluster in a severe downturn.
Example 2
A bank has EAD of $200 million, LGD of 40%, PD of 1%, and a 99.9% WCDR of 14.6%. Find the Credit VaR and the unexpected loss capital.
Show the solution
- Credit VaR = 0.146 × 0.40 × $200 million = $11.68 million.
- Expected loss = 0.01 × 0.40 × $200 million = $0.8 million.
- Unexpected loss capital = 11.68 − 0.8 = $10.88 million.
- Check with K: 0.40 × (0.146 − 0.01) = 0.0544; × $200 million = $10.88 million.
Answer: Credit VaR is $11.68 million and unexpected loss capital is $10.88 million.
Exam tips
- Know both sign cases: conditional PD uses −√ρ × M, WCDR uses +√ρ × N⁻¹(X).
- Expect a sanity check question: how WCDR changes when ρ, PD or X rises. All raise it.
- Remember Basel IRB subtracts expected loss and applies a 99.9% confidence level.
- Learn the key assumptions: one factor, large homogeneous portfolio, normal distributions, constant LGD.
- Round z-scores sensibly. Options are usually spaced widely.
Practice questions from Credit Value at Risk
- A portfolio has 100 independent loans, each USD 1 million exposure, LGD 100%, default probability 4%. Using a normal approximation to the nu…
- A portfolio has three independent loans, each with exposure of USD 10 million, a one-year default probability of 2%, and loss given default …
- A portfolio holds two loans, each of exposure USD 10 million, with LGD of 100% and a one-year default probability of 4% for each. The defaul…
- A risk analyst compares the KMV approach with the basic Merton model for estimating default probabilities. Which statement about KMV is corr…
- Two obligors, A and B, each have a one-year default probability of 10%. The joint default probability is 2%. What is the default correlation…
Single-Factor Model and Vasicek Credit VaR: frequently asked questions
What is the Vasicek worst case default rate?
It is the default rate on a large homogeneous portfolio that will not be exceeded at a chosen confidence level, such as 99.9%. It comes from setting the common factor at its bad-tail value in the conditional PD formula.
How does the Gaussian copula single-factor model work?
Each borrower's latent asset value is a mix of one common normal factor and its own normal shock. Default occurs when the latent value falls below N⁻¹(PD). Correlation among borrowers comes only from the common factor.
How does Basel IRB use the Vasicek formula?
Basel IRB sets capital for unexpected loss using the WCDR at 99.9%. Capital per unit of exposure is LGD × (WCDR − PD), with further adjustments such as maturity in the regulatory formula.
What happens to WCDR when correlation increases?
It rises. Higher asset correlation makes defaults more likely to occur together in a bad economy, so the tail default rate is larger and capital increases.