FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Margin (Collateral) and Settlement
A bank and a hedge fund have an uncollateralised OTC interest rate swap. The bank then signs a Credit Support Annex (CSA) with the hedge fund. What is the primary purpose of the CSA under an ISDA Master Agreement framework?
The CSA specifies how collateral is posted and returned between two OTC derivative counterparties, including thresholds, minimum transfer amounts, eligible assets and haircuts. Its purpose is to reduce counterparty credit exposure. It does not set trade terms, remove market risk, or clear the trade centrally.
- ATo set out the terms under which collateral is exchanged to reduce counterparty credit exposureCorrect
- BTo determine the notional amount and fixed rate on the swap
- CTo eliminate market risk on the swap for both parties
- DTo transfer the swap to a central counterparty
Explanation
The CSA is the legal annex to the ISDA Master Agreement that sets the collateral terms: thresholds, minimum transfer amounts, eligible collateral, haircuts and call frequency. Its purpose is to reduce counterparty credit exposure. It does not set trade economics, remove market risk, or move the trade to a CCP.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Margin (Collateral) and Settlement shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Margin (Collateral) and Settlement questions
- A dealer moves from daily to weekly remargining for a portfolio of uncleared OTC derivatives, with all other CSA terms unchanged. Which is t…
- Bank A and Bank B have a CSA with a threshold of USD 2 million for each party, a minimum transfer amount (MTA) of USD 0.5 million, and no in…
- A bank and a hedge fund have an uncollateralised OTC interest rate swap. They now sign a Credit Support Annex (CSA) with a zero threshold an…
- Bank A has a net mark-to-market exposure of USD 12.0 million to Counterparty B under a CSA. The CSA has a threshold of USD 2.0 million for B…
- A bank has bought protection through a credit default swap from a counterparty that is a large insurer heavily exposed to the same reference…
- A dealer and a hedge fund have a bilateral OTC derivatives agreement with a daily-called variation margin. Which statement best describes th…