Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Capital Regulation Before the Global Financial Crisis

A bank has a USD 100 million off-balance-sheet commitment to a corporate client that is a standby letter of credit serving as a direct credit substitute (credit conversion factor 100%). The counterparty is a corporate (100% risk weight). Separately, the bank has a USD 80 million swap with a current replacement cost of USD 2 million and add-on of USD 3 million with a corporate counterparty. Under Basel I's current exposure method, what is the total risk-weighted asset amount for these two items?

The standby letter of credit converts fully, giving 100 million of risk-weighted assets. The swap's credit equivalent is replacement cost plus add-on, 5 million, at a 100% weight. The total is 105 million dollars, not based on swap notional.

  1. AUSD 105.0 millionCorrect
  2. BUSD 102.0 million
  3. CUSD 180.0 million
  4. DUSD 100.0 million

Explanation

Standby LC: 100 x 100% x 100% = 100 million. Swap credit equivalent = replacement cost 2 + add-on 3 = 5 million, times 100% weight = 5 million. Total = 105 million. Using only replacement cost gives 102; using the notional of the swap gives 180.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Capital Regulation Before the Global Financial Crisis shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Capital Regulation Before the Global Financial Crisis questions