FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Risk Management
A bank's credit risk committee reviews its governance structure. Which arrangement best reflects the principle of independence in credit risk governance under the three lines of defense model?
The best arrangement is an independent credit risk function that approves ratings and limits separately from loan originators and reports to the chief risk officer. This separates risk-taking from risk oversight, avoiding conflicts of interest that arise when business lines or audit influence ratings or model design.
- AThe relationship managers who originate loans also approve the internal ratings assigned to those borrowers
- BThe credit risk function reports to the head of lending so that approvals and risk views are aligned
- CInternal audit designs the rating models and then independently validates them
- DThe credit risk function approves ratings and limits independently of the business units that originate loans, with a reporting line to the chief risk officerCorrect
Explanation
Independence requires that those who take credit risk are separated from those who measure, approve and challenge it. A credit risk function reporting to the CRO provides second-line oversight. Letting originators set ratings or the credit function report to lending creates conflicts of interest, and internal audit designing models would compromise its third-line independence.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Risk Management shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Credit Risk Management questions
- A bank's credit risk committee reviews a proposal to let relationship managers approve their own large corporate loans to keep clients satis…
- In the Merton structural model, a firm has a single zero-coupon debt issue maturing at T. Equity holders are viewed as holding which of the …
- A bank has a USD 20 million term loan with a one-year PD of 3% and LGD of 40%. It buys protection through a credit default swap on USD 20 mi…
- Under a Merton model, a firm has asset value of 200, asset volatility of 25% and zero-coupon debt with face value 120 due in one year. Assum…
- A bank wants to reduce regulatory capital on a loan portfolio through a traditional true-sale securitization. Which feature is most necessar…
- A portfolio has two loans, each with exposure of USD 100 and a one-year PD of 4% and LGD of 50%. Assuming the PD and LGD are known constants…