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FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Governance

A bank's credit risk policy sets a single-name exposure limit of 10% of Tier 1 capital. Tier 1 capital is USD 2,000 million. Borrower Alpha has drawn loans of USD 120 million and undrawn committed facilities of USD 100 million with a credit conversion factor of 50%. A further USD 40 million of new drawn lending to Alpha is proposed. Using exposure at default (drawn plus CCF-weighted undrawn), what is the outcome of approving the new lending?

Total exposure at default would be USD 210 million: 120 drawn plus 50 from the CCF-weighted undrawn facility plus 40 new lending. This exceeds the USD 200 million limit, which is 10% of Tier 1 capital, by USD 10 million, so the approval would breach policy and need escalation or reduction.

  1. ATotal exposure of USD 210 million exceeds the USD 200 million limit by USD 10 millionCorrect
  2. BTotal exposure of USD 260 million exceeds the limit by USD 60 million
  3. CTotal exposure of USD 160 million is within the limit with USD 40 million headroom
  4. DTotal exposure of USD 190 million is within the limit with USD 10 million headroom

Explanation

Limit = 10% x 2,000 = 200. Existing EAD = 120 + 0.5 x 100 = 170. Adding 40 gives 210, which exceeds 200 by 10. Ignoring the CCF and counting full undrawn (260) overstates the breach; omitting undrawn (160) understates it.

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