FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Liquidity Transfer Pricing: A Guide to Better Practice
A bank's matched-funding LTP curve gives a 5-year term liquidity premium of 80 bp over the base rate. A business unit originates a 5-year loan at 4.60% with a base rate of 3.20%. Treasury must also charge a contingent liquidity cost of 15 bp for an undrawn commitment line attached to the loan. Ignoring credit and operating costs, what is the unit's liquidity-adjusted margin?
The liquidity-adjusted margin is 0.45%. The loan earns 1.40% over the base rate, and subtracting the 0.80% term liquidity premium and the 0.15% contingent liquidity charge for the undrawn commitment leaves 0.45%.
- A0.45%Correct
- B0.60%
- C1.40%
- D0.25%
Explanation
Gross spread over base = 4.60% - 3.20% = 1.40%. Deduct the term liquidity premium 0.80% and the contingent cost 0.15%: 1.40 - 0.80 - 0.15 = 0.45%. Omitting the contingent charge gives 0.60%, the key distractor.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Liquidity Transfer Pricing: A Guide to Better Practice shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Liquidity Transfer Pricing: A Guide to Better Practice questions
- A bank's treasury sets the funds transfer price for a 5-year fixed-rate loan using the matched-maturity funding curve of 4.00% and a liquidi…
- Which governance arrangement is most consistent with good practice for a bank's LTP framework?
- A bank uses a single pooled transfer rate equal to the weighted average cost of all funding for every asset and liability, regardless of ten…
- A bank's treasury wants a funds transfer pricing (FTP) framework in which business units are charged for the liquidity risk of the assets th…
- A bank's LTP framework prices contingent liquidity risk from off-balance-sheet commitments. Which design feature is most consistent with bet…
- A bank uses a single pooled average cost of funds as its transfer price for all assets and liabilities. Which problem is most directly assoc…