FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · The Black-Scholes-Merton Model
A company has 10 million shares outstanding and has issued 2 million warrants, each giving the right to buy one new share. The Black-Scholes-Merton value of an otherwise identical regular call, using a stock price that already reflects the market's anticipation of the dilution, is $6.00. Using the standard dilution adjustment, what is the value of each warrant?
Each warrant is worth $5.00. The dilution adjustment multiplies the regular call value by N/(N+M), which is 10/12 here, so 6.00 × 10/12 equals 5.00. The adjustment lowers the value because exercise creates new shares that share in the firm's value.
- A$5.00Correct
- B$6.00
- C$7.20
- D$1.00
Explanation
Warrant value = N/(N+M) × c = 10/(10+2) × 6.00 = 5.00. Using (N+M)/N would give 7.20, which wrongly increases the value. Ignoring dilution gives 6.00. M/(N+M) × 6 = 1.00 uses the wrong proportion.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on The Black-Scholes-Merton Model shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More The Black-Scholes-Merton Model questions
- A European call on a non-dividend-paying stock has a strike of 48, six months to expiry and a market price of 4.20. The stock trades at 50 a…
- A stock has S_0 = 80, μ = 10% and σ = 40% per year. Under the lognormal model, what is the median of the stock price after 1 year?
- A stock trades at 50 and pays no dividends. A European call with strike 45 and six months to expiry is priced at 7.20 under Black-Scholes-Me…
- A stock trades at 40 and pays no dividends. A European put with strike 50 and one year to expiry has a continuously compounded risk-free rat…
- Under the Black-Scholes-Merton framework, a trader holds an American call option on a stock that pays no dividends during the option's life.…
- In the Black-Scholes-Merton model for a non-dividend-paying stock, N(d2) has which interpretation?