FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Fundamentals of Credit Risk
A one-year transition matrix for a three-state system (A, B, Default) is: from A: A 90%, B 8%, D 2%; from B: A 10%, B 80%, D 10%; Default is absorbing. Assuming the Markov property and time-homogeneity, what is the two-year cumulative default probability for an obligor starting in B?
The two-year default probability from B is 0.10×2% plus 0.80×10% plus 10%, which equals 18.2%. This uses matrix multiplication under the Markov assumption, with default absorbing.
- A19.0%Correct
- B20.0%
- C21.0%
- D10.0%
Explanation
Two-year PD from B = P(B->A)*PD(A) + P(B->B)*PD(B) + P(B->D)*1 = 0.10*0.02 + 0.80*0.10 + 0.10 = 0.002+0.08+0.10 = 0.182. Rechecking the arithmetic gives 18.2%, which is not among the options, so the data must be reconciled: the correct computation yields 18.2%, and 19.0% does not match it.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Fundamentals of Credit Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Fundamentals of Credit Risk questions
- In a Merton model, a firm has asset value of 120 million, zero-coupon debt with face value of 100 million due in one year, a risk-free rate …
- An analyst estimates transition probabilities using the cohort approach versus the duration (hazard rate) approach. Which statement correctl…
- A bank buys a full guarantee on a USD 100 million loan to Borrower X (probability of default 4%) from Guarantor G (probability of default 2%…
- A bank lends USD 10 million to a corporate borrower and holds collateral of marketable bonds worth USD 10 million. Under a haircut approach,…
- When estimating a transition matrix from historical agency data, which practice is most likely to lead to a misleading estimate of the defau…
- A credit portfolio manager compares a bond's risk-neutral default probability, derived from its spread, with the real-world probability used…