FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · Measuring Credit Risk
A one-year zero-coupon bond issued by Alder Corp has a continuously compounded yield of 6.00%, while the risk-free one-year continuously compounded rate is 4.50%. Assume a constant hazard rate and a recovery rate of 40% of face value. Using the approximation that the credit spread equals hazard rate times (1 - recovery rate), what is the implied annual hazard rate?
The implied hazard rate is 2.50%. The credit spread is 1.50% (6.00% minus 4.50%), and under the reduced-form approximation spread equals hazard rate times loss given default of 60%, so the hazard rate is 1.50% divided by 0.60.
- A1.50%
- B2.50%Correct
- C3.75%
- D0.90%
Explanation
Spread = 6.00% - 4.50% = 1.50%. Hazard rate = spread / (1 - R) = 1.50% / 0.60 = 2.50%. Check: 2.50% x 0.60 = 1.50%. Using 1.50% directly ignores recovery; 3.75% divides by R (0.40); 0.90% multiplies spread by 0.60.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Measuring Credit Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Measuring Credit Risk questions
- A bank has a loan exposure of USD 4,000,000 to a corporate borrower. The one-year probability of default is 2.5%, and the loss given default…
- In a Merton model, a firm's zero-coupon debt has a face value of 150 million and matures in one year. The continuously compounded risk-free …
- A portfolio manager observes that recovery rates on senior unsecured bonds tend to fall in years when aggregate default rates are high. Whic…
- Which statement best distinguishes reduced-form credit models from structural (Merton-type) models?
- Which of the following best explains why a loan portfolio's unexpected loss is generally less than the sum of the stand-alone unexpected los…
- In a Merton model, the firm's asset value is 200 with asset volatility of 20%. The value of risky debt is 136, so equity is 64. At this poin…