FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Financial Correlation Modeling - Bottom-Up Approaches
A risk manager observes that estimated correlations between equity returns rise sharply and revert slowly after market shocks. Which feature of a stochastic correlation model best captures this behavior?
A mean-reverting stochastic process for correlation best captures this. It lets correlation spike after shocks and then drift back toward a long-run level at a reversion speed, matching the empirical clustering and slow decay, which constant, trending, or fixed-at-one correlations cannot reproduce.
- AA constant correlation parameter calibrated to long-run data
- BA mean-reverting process for correlation, with a positive reversion speed toward a long-run levelCorrect
- CA deterministic linear trend in correlation over time
- DA correlation fixed at one in all stressed states
Explanation
Empirical correlation is mean-reverting and clusters in stress. A mean-reverting stochastic process, such as an Ornstein-Uhlenbeck type with long-run level, lets correlation jump and decay. A constant or deterministic trend cannot produce this dynamic.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Financial Correlation Modeling - Bottom-Up Approaches shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Financial Correlation Modeling - Bottom-Up Approaches questions
- Two assets have marginal default times that are exponential with hazard rates giving 1-year default probabilities of 10% each. Their default…
- In 2005, an analyst computes implied correlations for standard index tranches and finds that the equity tranche implies a correlation of 15%…
- A portfolio manager notes that during the credit crisis, defaults clustered far more than a Gaussian copula calibrated to average correlatio…
- A quant calibrates a Gaussian copula to a CDO and finds that the implied correlation needed to match the equity tranche differs from that ne…
- A portfolio of 100 equally weighted names has identical 5-year default probability of 10% and a one-factor Gaussian copula. A risk manager c…
- In a one-factor Gaussian copula with correlation rho = 0.25, a firm has a 5-year cumulative default probability of 2.28%, so N^-1(0.0228) = …