Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces

A risk manager observes that implied volatilities for short-dated equity index options show a pronounced skew, with low-strike puts carrying much higher implied volatility than at-the-money options. Which feature of the underlying return distribution, relative to the lognormal assumption, is most consistent with this pattern?

A downward-sloping equity skew, with low-strike puts priced at higher implied volatility, indicates the market-implied distribution has a heavier left tail than the lognormal. Investors pay more for downside protection, so extreme falls are assigned more probability than the Black-Scholes model assumes.

  1. AA heavier left tail than the lognormal distributionCorrect
  2. BA heavier right tail than the lognormal distribution
  3. CA lighter left tail and a heavier right tail
  4. DIdentical tails but a higher mean return

Explanation

Higher implied volatility for low strikes means the market assigns more probability to large downward moves than the lognormal model does. That corresponds to a heavier left tail. A heavier right tail would produce higher implied volatility for high strikes, as seen in some currency or commodity smiles.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces questions