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FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · VaR Mapping

A risk manager wants to estimate the VaR of a well-diversified portfolio of 200 US equities. Rather than modelling each stock separately, she maps the portfolio to a broad market index using each position's beta. What is the main reason this mapping is used?

Beta mapping reduces dimensionality: many stock positions are replaced by exposure to a few risk factors such as a market index. This shrinks the covariance matrix needed for VaR. It does not remove specific risk or force VaRs to add up.

  1. AIt replaces many individual positions with exposure to a small number of risk factors, reducing the dimension of the risk problemCorrect
  2. BIt eliminates the idiosyncratic risk of the portfolio so the VaR becomes exactly zero for that component
  3. CIt guarantees that the portfolio VaR equals the sum of the individual stock VaRs
  4. DIt converts the portfolio from a nonlinear to a linear payoff by construction of the index

Explanation

Beta mapping represents each stock by its sensitivity to a market index, so the portfolio is described by a few risk factors rather than hundreds of positions and a large covariance matrix. Specific risk is not set to zero; it is ignored or treated separately and is small only when the portfolio is diversified. Summing individual VaRs would ignore diversification.

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