IAI Actuarial Core Principles · Economic Modelling · Black-Scholes derivative-pricing model
A share of an Indian company trades at Rs 400 and follows GBM with mu = 12% p.a. and sigma = 20% p.a. What is the expected share price after 2 years, E[S_2], to the nearest rupee?
The expected price under geometric Brownian motion is S_0 times e to the power mu t, so 400 times e to the power 0.24, which is about Rs 509. No volatility correction applies to the mean of the price itself.
- ARs 480
- BRs 509Correct
- CRs 497
- DRs 524
- Rs 452
Explanation
For GBM, E[S_t] = S_0 e^{mu t}. So E[S_2] = 400 e^{0.24} = 400 x 1.27125 = 508.5, about Rs 509. Rs 497 uses the drift mu - sigma^2/2 (a wrong adjustment, which gives the median: 400 e^{0.2} = 489 is not it either, but 497 is nearby from a partial correction). Rs 480 is simple interest.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Black-Scholes derivative-pricing model shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Black-Scholes derivative-pricing model questions
- A one-year European digital option pays Rs 100 if the share price at expiry exceeds the strike, else nothing. Under Black-Scholes with r = 5…
- A share price S_t follows geometric Brownian motion dS = S(mu dt + sigma dW). Which statement about the distribution of S_t given S_0 is cor…
- A European call on a share of an Indian company that pays a known dividend before expiry is priced with the basic Black-Scholes formula usin…
- Under the Black-Scholes model, which statement about the volatility parameter is correct?
- A trader delta-hedges a short call using Black-Scholes, rebalancing only once a day, while the true share price occasionally jumps sharply o…
- Which statement about the Black-Scholes formula for a European call is correct?