FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · Properties of Options
A stock trades at 60 and will pay a dividend of 3 in 4 months. An American call has strike 55 and expires in 6 months. The continuously compounded risk-free rate is 4%. Using the standard condition for ruling out early exercise just before the ex-dividend date, which conclusion is correct? (Use exp(-0.04*(2/12)) = 0.9934.)
Early exercise cannot be ruled out. The test requires the dividend to be no more than K times one minus the discount factor over the remaining two months, which is about 0.36. The dividend of 3 exceeds this, so exercising just before the ex-dividend date may be optimal.
- AEarly exercise just before the dividend cannot be ruled out, because D = 3 exceeds K(1 - exp(-r*(T2-T1))) = 0.36Correct
- BEarly exercise is ruled out, because D = 3 is less than the strike
- CEarly exercise is ruled out, because the option is in the money
- DEarly exercise is optimal at time zero because the call is in the money
Explanation
Early exercise just before the ex-dividend date is not optimal if D <= K(1 - exp(-r(T2-T1))). Here the interval from dividend to expiry is 2 months, so K(1-0.9934) = 55*0.0066 = 0.363. Since D = 3 > 0.36, the condition does not hold and early exercise could be optimal. Being in the money alone is not a rule.
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