CFA Level I · CFA Level I Exam · Valuing a Derivative Using a One-Period Binomial Model
In a one-period binomial model, an analyst finds that the price of a call option in the market is higher than the value obtained by constructing a portfolio of the underlying and a risk-free bond that replicates the call payoffs. The arbitrageur's most appropriate action is to:
The arbitrageur should sell the call and buy the replicating portfolio. The call is overpriced relative to the cost of replicating its payoffs, so selling it and buying the cheaper replica captures the price difference today while the payoffs offset at expiration, leaving no risk.
- Asell the call and buy the replicating portfolioCorrect
- Bbuy the call and buy the replicating portfolio
- Cbuy the call and sell the replicating portfolio
Explanation
If the call trades above the cost of its replicating portfolio, it is overpriced. The arbitrageur sells the expensive call and buys the cheaper replicating portfolio, locking in the difference today with offsetting payoffs at expiration. Buying the call would add to the overpriced position.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Valuing a Derivative Using a One-Period Binomial Model shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Valuing a Derivative Using a One-Period Binomial Model questions
- A stock trades at 50. After one period it will be either 60 or 40. A call option with a strike of 50 expires at that time. The hedge ratio o…
- A stock trades at 50. After one period it will be either 60 or 40. A call option has an exercise price of 50. The hedge ratio (number of sha…
- Compared with valuing a one-period option using a replicating portfolio, valuing it with risk-neutral probabilities most likely:
- In a one-period binomial model for a call option on a stock, the hedge ratio is most likely defined as the:
- A stock trades at 80. In a one-period binomial model the up factor is 1.25 and the down factor is 0.80. The stock prices at the end of the p…
- In a one-period binomial model, the price of the underlying asset at the end of the period is assumed to be best described as: