FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · Banks
Which of the following best describes the main liquidity risk created when a bank funds long-term fixed-rate loans mainly with short-term wholesale deposits?
The main danger is funding liquidity risk: short-term wholesale funding must be repeatedly rolled over, and in stress lenders may refuse, forcing the bank to sell long-term assets at losses or borrow expensively. This maturity mismatch is the core of liquidity vulnerability.
- AFunding liquidity risk from rollover difficulty if wholesale lenders withdraw during stressCorrect
- BCredit risk because the loans' coupons are fixed
- COperational risk arising from mismatched settlement systems
- DBasis risk between LIBOR and the central bank rate only
Explanation
Maturity transformation relies on rolling over short-term funding. If wholesale lenders refuse to roll over, the bank must sell assets at a discount or find costly funding. The other options describe different risks that are not the principal liquidity concern.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Banks shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Banks questions
- A bank has HQLA of USD 12 billion. Projected total cash outflows over the next 30 days under stress are USD 20 billion, and projected inflow…
- Which of the following best describes the purpose of a capital conservation buffer in Basel III?
- Which of the following best explains why the originate-to-distribute model weakened lending standards before the 2007-2009 crisis?
- Which of the following instruments qualifies as Common Equity Tier 1 capital under Basel III?
- A bank has Tier 1 capital of USD 45 million, total on-balance-sheet exposures of USD 900 million, and off-balance-sheet items with credit-co…
- A securitization pool has a principal of USD 500 million. The tranches are: senior USD 400 million, mezzanine USD 70 million, equity USD 30 …