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FRM Exam Part II · Arbitrage Pricing with Term Structure Models

Time-Dependent Volatility and Cox-Ingersoll-Ross Models

Updated 11 October 2026 · Fact-checked

Time-dependent volatility lets the rate volatility σ change with the date, so a model can match the market's volatility term structure. Hull-White adds this to Vasicek. CIR and lognormal models make basis-point volatility depend on the rate level, which keeps rates from going negative. To solve questions, identify the volatility term and drift.

Understand Time-Dependent Volatility and Cox-Ingersoll-Ross Models

Start with the simplest short-rate model: dr = σ dw. Here r is the short rate, σ is volatility in rate units (for example 100 bps a year) and dw is a random shock. Volatility is constant, and the rate can go negative. Real markets show something different. Short-dated and long-dated rate volatilities differ, and that pattern is the volatility term structure.

Time-dependent volatility fixes the first problem. Replace σ with σ(t), a function of calendar time. You can then choose σ(t) so the model reproduces observed volatilities, such as those implied by caps or swaptions. The Hull-White model is the standard example. It is a Vasicek-type model with a time-dependent drift θ(t) and a time-dependent volatility σ(t): dr = (θ(t) − a·r) dt + σ(t) dw. The drift θ(t) fits today's yield curve. σ(t) fits the volatility curve. The mean-reversion speed a pulls the rate back, which lowers the volatility of long-horizon rates compared with short-horizon rates. Textbook versions differ slightly in how they write the drift, so read the form given in the question.

The second problem is negative rates. In normal models (Ho-Lee, Vasicek, Hull-White), the rate is normally distributed, so negative rates always have some probability. The fix is to make volatility depend on the level of the rate. In the Cox-Ingersoll-Ross (CIR) model, dr = k(θ − r) dt + σ√r dw. The basis-point volatility is σ√r. As r falls toward zero, volatility shrinks, and the rate cannot go below zero. If 2kθ ≥ σ² (the Feller condition), r never even reaches zero.

The lognormal family goes further. Basis-point volatility is proportional to r, so volatility is a percentage of the rate. The Salomon Brothers-style model is dr = a·r dt + σ·r dw. Black-Karasinski adds mean reversion and time-dependent parameters to the log of the rate: d(ln r) = k(t)(ln θ(t) − ln r) dt + σ(t) dw. Because ln r is normal, r is lognormal and always positive.

The trade-off: normal models are tractable and often give closed-form bond and option prices (Vasicek and Hull-White do). CIR keeps some tractability. Lognormal models like Black-Karasinski usually need numerical methods such as trees. Negative rates have been observed in EUR and other markets, so a model that forbids them is not automatically better.

Key formulas to remember

Model with time-dependent volatility
dr = λ(t) dt + σ(t) dw
λ(t) is a time-dependent drift fitted to the yield curve. σ(t) is chosen to fit the volatility term structure. Normal distribution, so negative rates are possible.
Hull-White (extended Vasicek)
dr = (θ(t) − a·r) dt + σ(t) dw
Mean reversion at speed a, with θ(t) fitting today's curve and σ(t) fitting volatilities. Rates are normal, so negative rates remain possible.
CIR model
dr = k(θ − r) dt + σ√r dw
k is the speed of mean reversion, θ is the long-run level. Basis-point volatility = σ√r. Rate cannot go negative.
Feller condition (CIR)
2kθ ≥ σ²
If true, the rate stays strictly above zero. If false, it can touch zero but still cannot go negative.
Lognormal model (no mean reversion)
dr = a·r dt + σ·r dw
Basis-point volatility = σ × r. σ is a percentage volatility, for example 20%.
Black-Karasinski
d(ln r) = k(t)(ln θ(t) − ln r) dt + σ(t) dw
Mean-reverting lognormal model with time-dependent parameters. Rates always positive. Usually needs a numerical method.
Basis-point volatility by model
Normal: σ | CIR: σ√r | Lognormal: σ·r
Convert to the same unit (decimal or bps) before comparing.

How to solve Time-Dependent Volatility and Cox-Ingersoll-Ross Models questions

Use this routine for any question on time-dependent volatility, CIR or lognormal models.

  1. 1Read the equation and name the model: look at the dw term. σ means normal, σ(t) means time-dependent, σ√r means CIR, σ·r means lognormal.
  2. 2Check the drift: is there a mean-reversion term such as k(θ − r) or a·r? Constant, time-dependent or mean-reverting drift changes the answer to questions about long-horizon volatility.
  3. 3Ask whether the rate can be negative. Normal models (including Hull-White): yes. CIR and lognormal models: no.
  4. 4If a volatility number is needed, compute basis-point volatility at the stated rate level: σ, σ√r or σ·r. Work in decimals, then convert to bps.
  5. 5For CIR with parameters given, test the Feller condition 2kθ ≥ σ². Compare the two numbers directly.
  6. 6For time-dependent volatility, link σ(t) to the volatility term structure: it is chosen so model volatilities match market-implied volatilities at each horizon.
  7. 7State the interpretation in one line: what the model allows or prevents, and what the cost is (for example, no closed form, or negative rates possible).
  8. 8Sanity-check units and size. A 5% short rate with 20% lognormal volatility is 100 bps a year, not 20 bps.

Quickest way: Read the dw term, then test rate level

When to use it: Use it for multiple-choice questions where you are asked which model fits, what volatility results, or whether rates can turn negative.

  1. Find the dw coefficient: σ, σ(t), σ√r or σ·r.
  2. Normal (σ or σ(t)): negative rates possible. CIR and lognormal: not possible.
  3. For volatility at a given r, multiply: σ√r (CIR) or σ·r (lognormal). Use decimals.
  4. For CIR, compute 2kθ and σ² and compare. Larger or equal 2kθ means strictly positive.
  5. Eliminate options that say CIR can go negative or that Hull-White prevents negative rates.

Common mistakes in Time-Dependent Volatility and Cox-Ingersoll-Ross Models

  • Saying Hull-White prevents negative rates because it has mean reversion and time-dependent terms.

    Mean reversion pulls rates toward a level, so students assume it keeps them positive.

    Fix: Hull-White is a normal model. Mean reversion changes where rates tend to go but not the normal distribution, so negative rates have positive probability.

  • Using σ as the basis-point volatility in CIR.

    In Vasicek the σ is the volatility directly, and students carry that habit over.

    Fix: In CIR, basis-point volatility is σ√r. Compute the square root of the rate in decimals first.

  • Confusing the Feller condition with the no-negative-rates result.

    Both relate to the zero boundary.

    Fix: CIR never produces negative rates. Feller (2kθ ≥ σ²) decides whether the rate can even reach zero. Failing it means touching zero is possible, not going below.

  • Reading lognormal volatility of 20% as 20 bps.

    Mixing percentage volatility of the rate with volatility in rate units.

    Fix: Basis-point volatility = σ × r. At r = 5% and σ = 20%, that is 1% = 100 bps a year.

  • Treating σ(t) as an extra source of randomness.

    The notation looks like a new variable.

    Fix: σ(t) is a deterministic function of time, chosen to fit the observed volatility term structure. There is still one shock, dw.

  • Assuming lognormal models are always preferred because rates stay positive.

    Positivity is seen as the only quality of a model.

    Fix: Lognormal models often lack closed-form prices and need trees or simulation. Normal models are easier, and negative rates do occur in practice. Pick based on the question's criterion.

Worked examples

Example 1

A risk analyst uses a CIR model with dr = k(θ − r) dt + σ√r dw, where σ = 0.05. The current short rate is 4%. What is the annual basis-point volatility of the short rate? Options: A) 20 bps; B) 50 bps; C) 100 bps; D) 200 bps.

Show the solution
  1. Identify the model: CIR, so basis-point volatility = σ√r.
  2. Convert the rate to a decimal: r = 0.04.
  3. Compute √r = √0.04 = 0.20.
  4. Multiply: 0.05 × 0.20 = 0.01.
  5. Convert to bps: 0.01 = 1% = 100 bps a year.

Answer: C) 100 bps a year. If r fell to 1%, volatility would drop to 0.05 × 0.10 = 0.5% = 50 bps, which shows how CIR volatility shrinks as rates fall.

Example 2

A CIR model has k = 0.2, θ = 3% and σ = 0.15. Which statement is correct? A) The rate can become negative; B) The rate can never reach zero; C) The rate can touch zero but can never become negative; D) The Feller condition holds, so the rate is strictly positive.

Show the solution
  1. Compute 2kθ = 2 × 0.2 × 0.03 = 0.012.
  2. Compute σ² = 0.15² = 0.0225.
  3. Compare: 0.012 < 0.0225, so the Feller condition 2kθ ≥ σ² fails.
  4. Failing Feller means the rate can reach zero. A is wrong, because CIR volatility σ√r vanishes at zero and the rate cannot go below it.
  5. So B and D are wrong. C is correct.

Answer: C) The rate can touch zero but can never become negative.

Exam tips

  • Always start by reading the dw coefficient. It tells you the model and the answer to most conceptual questions.
  • Convert percentages to decimals before taking √r or multiplying by r. Most numerical errors come from unit slips.
  • Be ready to say what time-dependent volatility is for: matching the volatility term structure, with θ(t) fitting the yield curve in Hull-White.
  • Expect trade-off questions. Link no-negative-rates to CIR and lognormal, and link closed-form tractability to the normal models.
  • For comparison questions, compute bp volatility for each model at the same rate level, then rank.

Practice questions from Arbitrage Pricing with Term Structure Models

Time-Dependent Volatility and Cox-Ingersoll-Ross Models: frequently asked questions

What is the difference between CIR and Vasicek?

Both mean-revert. In Vasicek the volatility term is constant (σ), so rates are normal and can be negative. In CIR it is σ√r, so volatility falls as the rate falls and the rate cannot go negative.

Can the CIR model produce negative interest rates?

No. As r approaches zero, the volatility term σ√r goes to zero, and the mean-reversion drift is positive at zero when θ is positive. The Feller condition 2kθ ≥ σ² decides whether the rate can touch zero.

What does the Hull-White model add to Vasicek?

It makes parameters time-dependent. A time-dependent drift θ(t) lets the model fit today's yield curve exactly, and σ(t) lets it fit the volatility term structure. It remains a normal model, so negative rates are possible.

Why is Black-Karasinski called a lognormal model?

It models the natural log of the short rate as a mean-reverting normal process, so the rate itself is lognormal and always positive. The cost is that bond and option prices generally need numerical methods such as trees.