Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Structured Credit Risk

A $1,000 million pool has a mezzanine tranche with attachment point 5% and detachment point 15%. The pool experiences a cumulative loss of 11%, with no recoveries or excess spread. What is the loss to the mezzanine tranche, as a percentage of the tranche's principal?

The mezzanine tranche loses 60% of its principal. The first 5% of pool losses is absorbed by the equity below, so the tranche takes 6% of the pool, or $60 million, against a tranche size of $100 million. Pool loss of 11% is not the tranche loss because of the attachment point.

  1. A11%
  2. B40%
  3. C60%Correct
  4. D100%

Explanation

Tranche loss starts at 5% of the pool. Pool loss of 11% means the tranche absorbs 11% - 5% = 6% of pool, i.e. $60 million. Tranche size is 10% of pool ($100 million), so the loss is 60/100 = 60%. Using 40% would be the remaining unimpaired portion, and 11% ignores the attachment point.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Structured Credit Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Structured Credit Risk questions