FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Non-parametric Approaches
A bank applies a kernel estimator to historical returns and compares it with a plain historical simulation at the 99% level. The sample has 250 observations. Which is a correct comparison?
At 99% with 250 observations, plain historical simulation depends on roughly 2.5 tail points, making it unstable. Kernel smoothing uses neighbouring observations to stabilize the quantile, but it creates no new independent data and still assumes the past represents the future.
- APlain historical simulation at 99% relies on about 2.5 tail observations, while kernel smoothing uses information from nearby points to stabilize the quantileCorrect
- BKernel smoothing increases the number of actual independent observations to above 250
- CPlain historical simulation is smooth, whereas the kernel estimate is a step function
- DKernel smoothing eliminates dependence on the assumption that past returns represent the future
Explanation
With 250 observations, 1% of the sample is 2.5 points, so the quantile is sensitive to a few values. Kernel smoothing borrows information from neighbouring observations to stabilize it. It does not create new independent data or remove the stationarity assumption.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Non-parametric Approaches shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Non-parametric Approaches questions
- A portfolio manager notes that volatility was very high in the oldest part of a 4-year historical window but is low now. Compared with the c…
- A bank's risk manager wants to report the uncertainty in expected shortfall (ES) as well as VaR using historical data. Which is a valid use …
- A bank uses BRW-weighted historical simulation. Sorted losses (largest first) and their weights are: 12m (weight 0.02), 9m (0.02), 7m (0.03)…
- A risk manager uses basic historical simulation with 500 daily P&L observations to estimate 1-day 99% VaR for a trading portfolio. Which sta…
- A risk analyst at a trading desk uses historical simulation with a 500-day window to compute 99% one-day VaR. Which of the following is a re…
- A risk manager is considering volatility-weighted historical simulation (Hull-White) instead of BRW age-weighting. Today's EWMA volatility f…