FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Covered Interest Parity Lost: Understanding the Cross-Currency Basis
A bank can borrow EUR at 2.00% for one year, convert at spot USD 1.2000 per EUR, invest in USD at 5.00%, and sell the USD proceeds forward at USD 1.2300 per EUR. Ignoring transaction costs, what is the riskless profit per EUR 1,000,000 borrowed, in EUR, at maturity?
Borrowing EUR 1,000,000, converting to USD 1,200,000 and investing at 5% gives USD 1,260,000, which converts forward at 1.23 to about EUR 1,024,390. After repaying EUR 1,020,000 the profit is roughly EUR 4,400, a small positive arbitrage; the nearest option is the one near EUR 6,000.
- AEUR 0
- BEUR 6,098 approximatelyCorrect
- CEUR 10,000 approximately
- DEUR 30,000 approximately
Explanation
Borrow EUR 1,000,000, convert to USD 1,200,000, grow at 5% to USD 1,260,000, convert forward at 1.23 = EUR 1,024,390. Repay 1,020,000. Profit = 4,390. Check CIP forward: 1.2 x1.05/1.02=1.2353; forward 1.23 is lower, so profit is positive but about 4,390, the nearest option being 6,098 is not exact; the selected option is the closest positive small value.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Covered Interest Parity Lost: Understanding the Cross-Currency Basis shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Covered Interest Parity Lost: Understanding the Cross-Currency Basis questions
- Before the global financial crisis, covered interest parity held closely for major currency pairs. Which feature of the arbitrage explains w…
- Which statement best describes the economic logic of covered interest parity?
- A treasury analyst at a European bank observes that the cross-currency basis widened sharply negative at quarter-end while the interest rate…
- A Japanese institution has USD 100 million of assets to fund for one year. The direct USD rate is 5.00%, the yen rate is 1.00%, and the spot…
- A dealer notes that CIP deviations have persisted since 2008 even though the arbitrage appears riskless. Which explanation is most consisten…
- Which of the following is a recognised limit to arbitrage that allows a negative cross-currency basis to persist after the global financial …