FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Portfolio Credit Risk
A bank compares the Merton model's theoretical default probability with the KMV approach. Which feature best distinguishes KMV's EDF from the Merton model's default probability?
KMV maps the distance to default to an expected default frequency using an empirical database of historical default experience, rather than the normal distribution used in the pure Merton model, which better captures real-world default behaviour.
- AKMV maps distance to default to an expected default frequency using an empirical database of historical defaults rather than the normal distributionCorrect
- BKMV assumes the firm can default at any time before maturity only if equity is negative, using the normal distribution
- CKMV uses credit spreads on traded bonds as the sole input to estimate asset volatility
- DKMV assumes recovery is fixed at 100% of the debt face value
Explanation
KMV calculates distance to default similarly to Merton but converts it to an EDF using empirical default experience, which captures fat tails and non-normality. Using the normal CDF is the pure Merton step. KMV infers asset value and volatility from equity data, not bond spreads.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Portfolio Credit Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Portfolio Credit Risk questions
- Two obligors each have a one-year default probability of 10%. The joint default probability is 3%. What is the default correlation between t…
- A bank wants to measure how much a new USD 20 million loan to a cyclical manufacturer would add to the portfolio's unexpected loss. Stand-al…
- A risk analyst compares two portfolios of 100 identical loans, each with a 2% one-year default probability. In Portfolio A defaults are inde…
- A bank holds a single loan with exposure at default of USD 10 million, a one-year probability of default of 2%, and loss given default of 40…
- A risk manager runs CreditMetrics on a two-bond portfolio. Each bond has a one-year default probability of 2% and the asset correlation is r…
- Holding PD and confidence level fixed, a risk manager raises the asset correlation parameter in a Vasicek large homogeneous portfolio model …