Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Solvency, Liquidity and Other Regulation After the Global Financial Crisis

A bank has Tier 1 capital of USD 36 billion, on-balance-sheet exposures of USD 700 billion, derivative exposures of USD 60 billion, securities financing transaction exposures of USD 40 billion, and off-balance-sheet items after credit conversion factors of USD 100 billion. Using the Basel III leverage ratio definition (Tier 1 capital divided by total exposure measure), what is the leverage ratio?

The leverage ratio is 4.0%. Total exposure is 700 + 60 + 40 + 100 = USD 900 billion, and Tier 1 capital of USD 36 billion divided by 900 gives 4.0%. Excluding derivatives, financing and off-balance-sheet items would overstate the ratio at 5.1%.

  1. A4.0%Correct
  2. B4.5%
  3. C5.1%
  4. D3.6%

Explanation

Total exposure = 700 + 60 + 40 + 100 = 900 billion. Ratio = 36/900 = 4.0%. Using only on-balance-sheet assets gives 36/700 = 5.1%, which ignores off-balance-sheet and derivative exposures.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Solvency, Liquidity and Other Regulation After the Global Financial Crisis shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Solvency, Liquidity and Other Regulation After the Global Financial Crisis questions