FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Risk Management
A bank lends USD 10 million to a corporate borrower. The one-year probability of default is 2%, the loss given default is 45%, and the exposure at default is the full USD 10 million. What is the expected loss on this loan over one year?
Expected loss equals probability of default times loss given default times exposure at default. Here that is 2% × 45% × USD 10 million, which gives USD 90,000. Omitting the loss severity would overstate the figure at USD 200,000.
- AUSD 90,000Correct
- BUSD 200,000
- CUSD 450,000
- DUSD 4,500,000
Explanation
Expected loss = PD × LGD × EAD = 0.02 × 0.45 × 10,000,000 = USD 90,000. USD 200,000 ignores LGD (PD × EAD). USD 450,000 uses LGD × EAD without PD, and USD 4.5 million is the loss given default itself.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Risk Management shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Credit Risk Management questions
- A one-year zero-coupon bond has a risk-free rate of 3% and a yield of 5% (annual compounding). Assuming a recovery rate of 40% of face value…
- A portfolio has 100 equal loans of USD 1 million each. A second portfolio has 10 equal loans of USD 10 million each. Total exposure is USD 1…
- A bank has a USD 20 million term loan with a one-year PD of 3% and LGD of 40%. It buys protection through a credit default swap on USD 20 mi…
- A bank wants to reduce regulatory capital on a loan portfolio through a traditional true-sale securitization. Which feature is most necessar…
- A bank's credit risk committee reviews a proposal to let relationship managers approve their own large corporate loans to keep clients satis…
- A risk analyst compares a structural (Merton-type) model with a reduced-form (intensity-based) model. Which statement correctly describes a …