FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Fundamentals of Credit Risk
A bank lends USD 5,000,000 to a corporate borrower. The one-year probability of default is 2%, the loss given default is 40%, and the exposure at default equals the full amount lent. What is the one-year expected loss?
Expected loss is PD times LGD times EAD, which is 2% x 40% x USD 5,000,000 = USD 40,000. The USD 100,000 figure ignores loss severity and treats the whole exposure as lost on default.
- AUSD 40,000Correct
- BUSD 100,000
- CUSD 200,000
- DUSD 4,000
Explanation
Expected loss = PD x LGD x EAD = 0.02 x 0.40 x 5,000,000 = USD 40,000. USD 100,000 omits LGD (PD x EAD). USD 200,000 omits PD (LGD x EAD). USD 4,000 is a decimal-place error.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Fundamentals of Credit Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Fundamentals of Credit Risk questions
- A bank has a term loan with a one-year probability of default of 2%, a loss given default of 45%, and an exposure at default of USD 10 milli…
- A bank's loan has a PD of 4%, LGD of 50% and EAD of USD 2,000,000. Which statement about the loan's credit loss is correct?
- Which statement best describes exposure at default (EAD) for a revolving credit facility?
- A risk analyst at a bank uses an annual rating transition matrix built from agency data. Which statement best describes the information cont…
- A risk manager reviews a portfolio of loans to firms in a cyclical industry. In a downturn, defaults rise and collateral values fall at the …
- A bank has two derivative trades with a counterparty under a legally enforceable close-out netting agreement. Trade A has a mark-to-market v…