FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Introduction to Credit Risk Modeling and Assessment
A bank validates a retail scorecard and finds that the cumulative distribution of scores of defaulters and non-defaulters has a maximum vertical separation (KS statistic) of 0.45. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A KS of 0.45 means the largest difference between the cumulative share of bad borrowers and the cumulative share of good borrowers across score cutoffs is 45 percentage points. It measures discriminatory power, not accuracy at every cutoff, portfolio default probability, or AUC.
- AThe model correctly classifies 45% of all borrowers at every cutoff
- BThe maximum gap between the cumulative proportions of bad and good borrowers across score cutoffs is 45 percentage pointsCorrect
- CThe probability of default for the portfolio is 45%
- DThe area under the ROC curve is 0.45
Explanation
The Kolmogorov-Smirnov statistic measures the largest difference between the cumulative score distributions of defaulters and non-defaulters at some cutoff. It is not an accuracy rate, a PD, or an AUC; an AUC of 0.45 would be worse than random.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Introduction to Credit Risk Modeling and Assessment shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Introduction to Credit Risk Modeling and Assessment questions
- A risk analyst at a bank is explaining the standard decomposition of expected credit loss on a single loan. Which expression correctly state…
- A bank's analyst reviews a portfolio and notes that during economic downturns observed default rates rise and realized recovery rates on def…
- A bank's scorecard was developed on data from an expansion period with low defaults. During a downturn, the model's ranking of borrowers rem…
- A bank's scorecard has an AUC of 0.80 on development data. A validator computes the Gini (accuracy ratio) and then notes that, on an out-of-…
- A risk analyst applies the Merton structural model to a firm financed by equity and a single zero-coupon debt issue maturing in one year. Un…
- A risk manager notes that a bank's portfolio loan loss distribution is highly skewed with a long right tail. Which statement about credit Va…