FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Credit Value Adjustment
A bank's derivative book with a counterparty has a unilateral CVA of USD 2.40 million (loss from counterparty default) and a DVA of USD 0.90 million (gain from the bank's own default). The bank's own credit spread then widens sharply, doubling DVA, while the counterparty's credit is unchanged. What is the change in reported bilateral CVA (CVA minus DVA) and its effect on earnings, ignoring other factors?
Bilateral CVA falls from USD 1.50 million to USD 0.60 million, giving a USD 0.90 million accounting gain. Doubling DVA to 1.80 million lowers the net charge, so the bank books a profit as its own credit deteriorates, the counterintuitive DVA effect.
- ABilateral CVA falls from USD 1.50 million to USD 0.60 million, producing an accounting gain of USD 0.90 millionCorrect
- BBilateral CVA rises from USD 1.50 million to USD 2.40 million, producing a loss of USD 0.90 million
- CBilateral CVA falls from USD 3.30 million to USD 0.60 million, producing a gain of USD 2.70 million
- DBilateral CVA is unchanged because DVA does not depend on the bank's spread
Explanation
Initial bilateral CVA = 2.40 - 0.90 = 1.50. DVA doubles to 1.80, so bilateral CVA = 2.40 - 1.80 = 0.60. The reduction of 0.90 is a gain, even though the bank's creditworthiness deteriorated, which is the well-known counterintuitive DVA effect.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Credit Value Adjustment shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Credit Value Adjustment questions
- A bank's credit spread widens sharply during a market stress period because investors perceive it as riskier, while the bank's derivative po…
- A bank calculates the fair value of an uncollateralized derivative portfolio with a corporate client. It then adjusts the risk-free value to…
- A bank has an interest rate swap in which it receives fixed from a counterparty. Assume the counterparty is the only defaultable party. How …
- A bank has an uncollateralised derivative portfolio with a corporate client. The bank calculates unilateral CVA from its own perspective. Wh…
- A bank has an uncollateralised OTC derivative portfolio with a counterparty. Under the standard unilateral CVA approach, which expression be…
- Independence-based CVA uses discounted expected exposure of 4.0 million in the period, default probability 2.0% and loss given default 60%, …