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FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Sound Management of Risks Related to Money Laundering and Financing of Terrorism

A bank's ML/FT risk assessment identifies high inherent risk in its correspondent banking business, but strong controls. Which approach is most consistent with the Basel Committee's risk-based approach?

The bank should apply enhanced, proportionate measures to the high-risk correspondent business and evaluate residual risk after accounting for controls. Uniform treatment ignores risk differences, blanket exits are de-risking rather than management, and relying solely on the respondent's assessment abandons the bank's own responsibility.

  1. AApply the same due diligence to all customers regardless of risk to ensure consistency
  2. BExit all correspondent relationships because inherent risk is high
  3. CApply enhanced measures proportionate to the identified risk, and assess residual risk after considering the control environmentCorrect
  4. DRely on the respondent bank's own assessment and perform no independent review

Explanation

A risk-based approach requires identifying and assessing risks, then applying controls proportionate to them and evaluating residual risk. Uniform treatment ignores risk differences, blanket exit is de-risking rather than risk management, and full reliance on the respondent abandons the bank's own responsibility.

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