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FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Risk Governance

A bank's operational risk appetite statement sets a tolerance that annual operational loss events must not exceed USD 40 million. Year-to-date losses are USD 31 million at the end of month 9. The bank's escalation policy requires escalation to the risk committee when losses reach 75% of the tolerance. What is the most appropriate conclusion?

Losses of USD 31 million are 77.5% of the USD 40 million tolerance, which exceeds the 75% escalation trigger. The risk committee should be informed, but the tolerance itself is not breached, so no limit increase or halting of activities is warranted.

  1. ALosses are at 77.5% of the tolerance, so the escalation trigger has been breached and the risk committee should be informed, although the tolerance itself has not been breachedCorrect
  2. BLosses are at 72.5% of the tolerance, so no escalation is required yet
  3. CLosses are at 77.5% of the tolerance, so the tolerance is breached and the board must approve a higher limit
  4. DLosses are at 129% of the tolerance, so the bank is in breach and must halt activities

Explanation

31/40 = 77.5%, which exceeds the 75% trigger (USD 30 million). The USD 40 million tolerance is not breached, so the correct action is escalation to the risk committee. Option B miscalculates the ratio; option D inverts the ratio (40/31).

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