Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Derivatives

A CCP calculates initial margin using a 99% one-day VaR of 4.0 million for a member's portfolio, and the margin period of risk is 5 days. Assuming returns are i.i.d. normal and using the square-root-of-time rule, what initial margin is required, approximately?

The initial margin is about 8.94 million. Under the square-root-of-time rule, the one-day 99% VaR of 4.0 million is multiplied by the square root of five, roughly 2.236. Scaling by five instead would wrongly give 20 million.

  1. A4.0 million
  2. B8.94 millionCorrect
  3. C20.0 million
  4. D10.0 million

Explanation

Scale by the square root of 5: 4.0 × 2.236 = 8.94 million. Using 5 directly gives 20.0 million, which is the error of scaling linearly. Using 4.0 alone ignores the horizon, and 10.0 has no basis.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Derivatives shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Derivatives questions