FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Central Clearing
A CCP's recovery plan after a default that exhausts the entire default waterfall includes variation margin gains haircutting (VMGH) and partial tear-up of contracts. A risk manager at a clearing member concludes correctly that which is the key risk of VMGH for the member?
Variation margin gains haircutting means members with gains may receive less than they are owed, so they bear an uncertain, unhedgeable loss in recovery. It is not capped at their default fund contribution, and payment is not guaranteed in full.
- AThe member's initial margin is immediately returned, removing its exposure to the CCP
- BThe member may receive less than the variation margin gains owed on in-the-money positions, creating an uncertain loss that cannot be hedged by the margin it holdsCorrect
- CThe member's liability is capped at its prefunded default fund contribution, so no further loss is possible
- DThe member is guaranteed full payment because variation margin is segregated from the CCP
Explanation
In VMGH, the CCP pays members with gains less than the full amount owed to cover the shortfall, so members with in-the-money positions bear loss uncertainty. It is not capped by default fund contributions, and variation margin is not guaranteed full payment; initial margin is not returned.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Central Clearing shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Central Clearing questions
- A regulator worries that mandatory clearing of derivatives increases procyclicality. Which mechanism best supports this concern?
- A risk officer is concerned that a CCP's loss mutualization design may weaken incentives. Which feature would most directly strengthen the i…
- When a CCP's default fund is exhausted and assessments on surviving members are also used up, which recovery tool allows the CCP to reduce a…
- Dealer A has three bilateral OTC derivative positions with different counterparties, with mark-to-market values of +80, -50 and +30 (USD mil…
- A bank clears interest rate swaps through a qualifying central counterparty (QCCP) under Basel III. Which statement best describes the regul…
- A CCP's default waterfall has the following order of loss absorption after a clearing member defaults. Which sequence is the standard orderi…