CMA Final · Strategic Financial Management · Interest Rate Derivatives
A company wants protection against a rise in its floating borrowing rate and buys an interest rate cap with strike 8% on notional Rs 5 crore, with quarterly resets. At one reset date the reference rate is 9.2% p.a. Taking a quarter as one-fourth of a year, what is the payoff received for that period?
The payoff is Rs 1,50,000. A cap pays the excess of the reference rate over the strike, here 1.2%, on the notional of Rs 5 crore for one quarter. That gives 5,00,00,000 x 1.2% x 1/4 equal to Rs 1,50,000.
- ARs 1,50,000Correct
- BRs 6,00,000
- CRs 4,60,000
- DRs 0
Explanation
Cap payoff = notional x max(0, rate - strike) x 1/4 = 5,00,00,000 x 1.2% x 0.25 = Rs 1,50,000. Rs 6,00,000 omits the quarter fraction; Rs 4,60,000 uses the full rate rather than the excess over strike.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Interest Rate Derivatives shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Interest Rate Derivatives questions
- Kaveri Ltd buys a 3x9 FRA (a six-month rate starting three months from now) on ₹20 crore at an agreed FRA rate of 6% p.a. At settlement, the…
- A firm wants the forward rate for the period from year 1 to year 2. The 1-year spot rate is 6% p.a. and the 2-year spot rate is 7% p.a. (ann…
- A firm has a floating-rate loan of Rs 20 crore at MIBOR + 1.5%. It enters a 2-year plain vanilla swap as fixed-rate payer at 8.20% against r…
- A company holds the following zero-coupon spot rates (annual compounding): 1-year 6.00%, 2-year 7.00%. What is the implied 1-year forward ra…
- Kaveri Textiles has a floating-rate loan costing MIBOR + 1.00% p.a. It enters a plain-vanilla swap in which it pays a fixed 7.50% p.a. and r…
- A treasury manager holds a bond portfolio with a price value of a basis point (PVBP) of ₹80,000, meaning its value falls by ₹80,000 for each…