FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Estimating Default Probabilities
A five-year CDS spread on a firm is 150 basis points and the recovery rate is 40%. Historical data for the firm's rating class show an average annual default intensity of 1.8%. Using the approximation hazard rate = spread/(1-R), the ratio of risk-neutral to real-world default intensity and the correct interpretation are:
The risk-neutral hazard rate is 1.5%/0.6 = 2.5%, which is about 1.39 times the 1.8% real-world intensity. The risk-neutral rate exceeds the historical one, consistent with investors demanding positive compensation for default risk beyond expected loss.
- ARatio about 1.39; risk-neutral intensity exceeds real-world, consistent with positive risk premiaCorrect
- BRatio about 0.72; risk-neutral intensity is below real-world, indicating mispricing by the market
- CRatio about 1.39; real-world intensity exceeds risk-neutral, indicating negative risk premia
- DRatio about 0.83; the two intensities are consistent after adjusting for recovery
Explanation
Risk-neutral hazard rate = 1.50%/(1-0.40) = 2.5%. Ratio = 2.5%/1.8% = 1.389. Because the implied rate exceeds the historical rate, the market is charging a premium for default risk, which is the normal pattern. Option B inverts the ratio (1.8/2.5 = 0.72).
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Estimating Default Probabilities shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Estimating Default Probabilities questions
- Which of the following is a well-documented limitation of using a historical rating transition matrix to forecast future credit migration wi…
- A credit risk officer notes that historical average default rates by rating are being used to set real-world default probabilities, while bo…
- A risk manager compares 5-year default probabilities estimated from historical rating-agency data with those implied from CDS spreads and bo…
- A risk analyst reviews a one-year rating transition matrix estimated from agency data. Which statement best describes the row for the defaul…
- Under the Merton model, a firm has asset value V0 = 140, zero-coupon debt face value D = 100 due in 1 year, asset drift mu = 12%, and asset …
- A credit analyst reviewing historical bond data for a risk report observes that, across years, the average recovery rate on defaulted senior…