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FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Madoff: A Riot of Red Flags

A fund of funds compares a feeder fund's returns with its stated benchmark, the S&P 500. Over 60 months the feeder's regression on the index gives a beta of 0.05 and an R-squared of 0.02, while the manager describes the strategy as fully invested in large-cap US equities with option overlays. What is the best interpretation?

The result is inconsistent with the stated strategy. A long large-cap equity portfolio with option overlays should retain substantial market sensitivity, yet a beta of 0.05 and R-squared of 0.02 show returns almost unrelated to the index, suggesting the reported returns may not come from the claimed holdings.

  1. AConsistent with the strategy, since option overlays remove all market exposure
  2. BConsistent with the strategy, since low R-squared implies strong alpha
  3. CInconsistent with the strategy, because a long equity portfolio with an overlay should retain substantial market sensitivity, so the returns may not come from the claimed holdingsCorrect
  4. DUninformative, because regression analysis cannot be applied to hedge funds

Explanation

A portfolio of large-cap stocks with collars still has meaningful beta, typically around 0.3 to 0.6, and meaningful R-squared. A beta of 0.05 and R-squared of 0.02 mean returns are nearly unrelated to the market, which contradicts the description. Low R-squared does not demonstrate alpha; it signals a mismatch between the claimed holdings and the actual return source.

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