Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Fundamentals of Credit Risk

A one-year zero-coupon corporate bond yields 6.00% (continuous compounding) while a comparable risk-free zero yields 4.00%. Assuming a 40% recovery rate, what is the approximate risk-neutral one-year default probability using the formula spread ≈ PD × (1 − R)?

The approximate risk-neutral default probability is 3.33%. The 2% spread equals default probability times loss given default, and with a 40% recovery the loss given default is 60%, so 2% divided by 0.60 gives about 3.33%.

  1. A2.00%
  2. B3.33%Correct
  3. C5.00%
  4. D1.20%

Explanation

Spread = 6% − 4% = 2%. Loss given default = 1 − 0.40 = 0.60. PD ≈ 2%/0.60 = 3.33%. Using 2% directly ignores recovery (2.00%); dividing by 0.4 gives 5.00%, which uses recovery instead of LGD.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Fundamentals of Credit Risk shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Fundamentals of Credit Risk questions