FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Private Markets Investing
A pension fund is comparing a senior secured direct lending fund with a broadly syndicated leveraged loan fund. Which feature most commonly explains why direct lending funds typically offer a higher spread for similar credit quality?
Direct lending spreads are higher mainly because investors are paid for illiquidity and the complexity of privately negotiated, bilateral origination. These loans rarely trade and are valued by models, so lenders require extra yield compared with similar-quality syndicated loans that have market pricing.
- ACompensation for illiquidity and the complexity of bilateral originationCorrect
- BGuaranteed principal protection from the fund sponsor
- CDaily market pricing that reduces valuation uncertainty
- DLower covenant protection that reduces default risk
Explanation
Direct loans are privately negotiated, rarely traded and hard to value, so investors demand an illiquidity and complexity premium. Daily market pricing is a feature of syndicated loans, not direct lending. Weaker covenants would raise, not lower, risk, and sponsors do not guarantee principal.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Private Markets Investing shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Private Markets Investing questions
- A private credit fund holds a loan with a PIK toggle that the borrower has recently elected to pay in kind rather than in cash. From a risk …
- A pension fund compares a private equity fund with the MSCI World index using the Kaplan-Schoar PME. The future value of the fund's distribu…
- A pension fund evaluates a regulated utility-like infrastructure investment with long-term inflation-linked revenues financed by fixed-rate …
- A direct lending portfolio has 50 USD 10 million loans, an annual default probability of 4%, and LGD of 40%. Defaults are assumed independen…
- An investor is concerned that private credit fund valuations understate risk during stress. Which practice best addresses the problem of smo…
- A risk manager reviews a direct lending fund whose loans have covenant-lite terms and a 60% weighted-average loan-to-value at origination. S…