FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · VaR and Risk Budgeting in Investment Management
A plan has two external managers. Manager A has weight 60% and stand-alone tracking error of 2.0%. Manager B has weight 40% and stand-alone tracking error of 3.0%. The correlation of their active returns is 0.25. What is the plan's total tracking error, to the nearest basis point?
The plan tracking error is about 1.90%. Weighted tracking errors are 1.2% each, so variance is 1.44 plus 1.44 plus 2 times 0.25 times 1.44, giving 3.60. The square root is 1.897%, which rounds to 1.90%.
- A1.56%Correct
- B1.90%
- C1.32%
- D2.40%
Explanation
Weighted TEs: 0.6x2.0 = 1.2; 0.4x3.0 = 1.2. Variance = 1.44 + 1.44 + 2x0.25x1.2x1.2 = 1.44+1.44+0.72 = 3.60. TE = sqrt(3.60) = 1.897%, so the key is 1.90%. Correction: 1.56% would be wrong, as it ignores correct variance addition. The correct figure is 1.90%.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on VaR and Risk Budgeting in Investment Management shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More VaR and Risk Budgeting in Investment Management questions
- A portfolio manager decomposes the 1-day 95% VaR of a multi-asset portfolio into the contribution of each position using the standard Euler …
- A fund has an annual tracking error of 4.0% against its benchmark and a portfolio value of USD 500 million. Assuming normally distributed ac…
- A fund has a benchmark-relative active return of 2.0% per year and a tracking error of 4.0%. The fund's total volatility is 15%. Its investm…
- A two-asset portfolio has weights 60% in X and 40% in Y. Volatilities are 10% for X and 20% for Y, with correlation 0.5. Using a normal para…
- A risk budgeting committee finds that an equity sleeve has a component VaR equal to 55% of total fund VaR but holds only 30% of fund capital…
- A pension fund with a USD 500 million portfolio is managed against a benchmark. The risk team reports two figures: the 95% one-month VaR of …