IAI Actuarial Core Principles · Economic Modelling · Principles of option pricing
A share priced at Rs 400 will pay a certain dividend of Rs 10 in 3 months. European call and put options expire in 6 months with strike Rs 420. The continuously compounded risk-free rate is 5% per year. Present value of dividend = 10 e^{-0.0125} = 9.876 and K e^{-0.025} = 409.60. If the call costs Rs 20, what is the put price?
With a known dividend, parity is C - P = S0 - PV(dividend) - K e^{-rT}. This gives -19.476, so the put is 20 + 19.476 = Rs 39.48. Ignoring the dividend gives a wrong figure.
- ARs 39.72Correct
- BRs 29.72
- CRs 19.48
- DRs 39.48
- Rs 49.60
Explanation
With dividends, C - P = S0 - PV(D) - K e^{-rT} = 400 - 9.876 - 409.60 = -19.476. So P = C + 19.476 = 39.476, about 39.48. Checking options: Rs 39.48 is option 4, not option 1.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Principles of option pricing shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Principles of option pricing questions
- A share pays a known large dividend just before the expiry of an American call. Compared with a similar non-dividend-paying share, which sta…
- Which of the following is an assumption underlying the standard Black-Scholes model for a European option?
- A share is Rs 80 and will pay a certain dividend of Rs 4 in six months. The risk-free force of interest is 8% per year (e^-0.04 = 0.9608; e^…
- A European call option on a non-dividend-paying share has a strike price of Rs 500. All other factors are unchanged. Which single change wou…
- An investor buys a call with strike Rs 100 for Rs 6 and sells a call with strike Rs 120 for Rs 2, both on the same share and expiry. Ignorin…
- An investor buys a share at Rs 200 and buys a European put on it with strike Rs 190 for a premium of Rs 8. Ignoring interest, what is the in…