CFA Level I · CFA Level I Exam · Valuing a Derivative Using a One-Period Binomial Model
A stock is at 50 and can move to 60 or 40 after one period. The risk-free rate is 5% per period and the risk-neutral up probability is 0.625. The value today of a European call option with a strike of 50 is closest to:
The call is worth about 5.95. The risk-neutral expected payoff is 0.625 times 10, or 6.25, and discounting one period at 5% gives 5.95. Leaving out the discounting step gives the incorrect 6.25.
- A3.57
- B5.95Correct
- C6.25
Explanation
Payoffs: up = 10, down = 0. Expected payoff = 0.625 x 10 = 6.25. Discounting at 1.05 gives 5.95. The 6.25 option omits discounting; 3.57 wrongly uses 0.375 as the up probability and then discounts (3.75/1.05).
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Valuing a Derivative Using a One-Period Binomial Model shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Valuing a Derivative Using a One-Period Binomial Model questions
- A stock is at 100 and will move to 120 or 90 in one period. The risk-free rate is 5% for the period. The risk-neutral probability of the up …
- A stock trades at 50. Over one period it can rise to 60 (u = 1.20) or fall to 40 (d = 0.80). The risk-free rate is 5% per period. The risk-n…
- Holding other inputs constant, a rise in the risk-free rate per period in a one-period binomial model most likely causes the risk-neutral pr…
- A stock is priced at 40 and will be either 48 or 34 in one period. The risk-free rate is 4% for the period. A European put has an exercise p…
- Compared with pricing an option using real-world probabilities of up and down moves, the risk-neutral approach in a one-period binomial mode…
- In a one-period binomial model, the risk-neutral probability of an up move is most likely interpreted as: