Skip to content

FRM Part I · FRM Exam Part I · Measuring Return, Volatility, and Correlation

An analyst computes the correlation between the daily returns of two assets using a window containing a few extreme, same-direction outlier days. Compared with the correlation over a calm period, which is the most likely effect?

The estimated correlation is likely overstated. Sample correlation uses products of deviations from the mean, so a few extreme days where both assets move strongly in the same direction dominate the calculation. Being scale-free does not make correlation robust to outliers.

  1. AThe estimated correlation is overstated, because a few shared extreme observations dominate the co-movementCorrect
  2. BThe estimated correlation falls toward zero, because outliers add noise
  3. CThe correlation is unaffected, because correlation is scale-free
  4. DThe correlation becomes negative, because outliers reverse the sign

Explanation

Sample correlation relies on products of deviations, so a few large joint deviations dominate the numerator and the variances, pushing the estimate toward the direction of the outliers, typically upward. Scale-free does not mean robust to outliers.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Measuring Return, Volatility, and Correlation shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Measuring Return, Volatility, and Correlation questions