IAI Actuarial Core Principles · Business Economics · Balance of payments and exchange rates
An Indian reinsurer holds US dollar-denominated claims liabilities and has matched them with dollar assets. The rupee is under a managed float and then depreciates sharply against the dollar. Which statement is correct about the reinsurer's rupee-reported position, assuming assets and liabilities are exactly equal in dollars?
The net position is unchanged. With dollar assets exactly equal to dollar liabilities, a depreciation of the rupee increases both by the same percentage in rupee terms, so the surplus stays zero. Currency matching removes exposure to exchange rate movements regardless of regime.
- AThe rupee value of assets rises by more than liabilities, creating a surplus
- BThe rupee value of liabilities rises by more than assets, creating a deficit
- CAssets and liabilities rise by the same proportion, so the net position is unchangedCorrect
- DBoth assets and liabilities fall in rupee terms
- Only the liabilities are revalued, because assets are held at cost
Explanation
If dollar assets equal dollar liabilities, a rupee depreciation raises both by the same percentage in rupee terms. The net exposure is zero, which is the purpose of currency matching. Options claiming a surplus or deficit would require a currency mismatch.
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