CFA Level I · CFA Level I Exam · Interest Rate Risk and Return
An investor buys a bond for 98.00, receives a single coupon of 4.00 after one year, and then sells the bond for 99.00. The investor's one-year holding period return is closest to:
The one-year holding period return is about 5.10%. It combines the 4.00 coupon and the 1.00 price gain, which total 5.00, divided by the 98.00 purchase price. Counting only the coupon gives 4.08% and counting only the price gain gives 1.02%, so both are incomplete.
- A1.02%
- B4.08%
- C5.10%Correct
Explanation
Holding period return = (99.00 + 4.00 − 98.00)/98.00 = 5.00/98.00 = 5.10%. The 4.08% result counts only the coupon income (4/98), and the 1.02% result counts only the price gain (1/98). The correct return includes both components.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Interest Rate Risk and Return shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Interest Rate Risk and Return questions
- The relationship between price and yield to maturity for an option-free, fixed-rate bond is best described as:
- Two option-free bonds have the same modified duration and yield. Bond X has higher convexity than Bond Y. An analyst expecting a large, unce…
- For an option-free bond, the relationship between its price and its yield-to-maturity is most accurately described as:
- Two option-free bonds have the same maturity and the same yield to maturity, but Bond X has a 3% coupon and Bond Y has a 7% coupon. For a gi…
- An investor buys a fixed-rate bond with a Macaulay duration of 4.2 years and a planned holding period of 6 years. Immediately after purchase…
- A bond has a modified duration of 8.00 and a convexity of 90.0. Yield-to-maturity falls by 50 bps. The estimated percentage price change usi…