IAI Actuarial Core Principles · Actuarial Mathematics for Modelling · Time value of money: compound interest and discounting
An investor is due to receive Rs 50,000 in 4 years' time. The effective annual rate of interest is 6%. What is the present value of this payment, to the nearest rupee?
The present value is about Rs 39,605. Discount the Rs 50,000 over four years at 6% effective annual interest by multiplying by 1.06 to the power minus four, which is 0.79209. Accumulating instead of discounting would wrongly give about Rs 63,124.
- ARs 39,605Correct
- BRs 40,000
- CRs 37,500
- DRs 63,124
- Rs 39,000
Explanation
PV = 50,000 × 1.06^-4. 1.06^4 = 1.262477, so PV = 50,000 / 1.262477 = 39,604.7, which is about Rs 39,605. Rs 63,124 results from accumulating instead of discounting. Rs 40,000 uses a rough simple-interest style adjustment.
Did you get it right without looking?
One question tells you little. A timed set on Time value of money: compound interest and discounting shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.
More Time value of money: compound interest and discounting questions
- The force of interest is a constant 5% per annum. What is the present value of Rs 100,000 payable in 3 years, to the nearest rupee?
- An investor buys a 9-month bill with maturity value ₹1,00,000 at a price of ₹92,500, being discounted at a simple discount rate of 10% per a…
- The present value of Rs 1 due in n years is 0.7513 at an effective annual rate i. Which statement about the present value of Rs 1 due in 2n …
- Rohit invests ₹16,000 for 2 years in an account where the effective annual rate of discount is 20%. What is the accumulated value at the end…
- An investment grows at 6% per annum compound effective. What constant annual simple interest rate would give the same accumulation over exac…
- The nominal rate of discount convertible quarterly is 8% per annum. What is the present value of Rs 200,000 due in 2 years, to the nearest r…