Skip to content

FRM Part II · FRM Exam Part II · Illiquid Assets

An investor with uncertain near-term cash needs is considering a private real estate fund with a ten-year lock-up that offers an expected return premium over listed real estate. Which assessment of the premium is most appropriate?

The premium compensates the investor for bearing illiquidity, so it should be accepted only if the investor can tolerate being locked in without selling when cash is needed. Investors with uncertain near-term needs risk forced sales at deep discounts, which can erase the premium.

  1. AThe premium compensates for bearing illiquidity and should be accepted only if the investor can tolerate being unable to sell when cash is neededCorrect
  2. BThe premium is risk-free because private valuations are stable
  3. CThe premium is irrelevant because lock-ups do not affect investor outcomes
  4. DThe premium should be accepted by all investors regardless of liquidity needs

Explanation

An illiquidity premium is compensation for bearing the risk of not being able to trade. It suits investors with long horizons and stable liquidity needs. Stable appraisal-based valuations understate risk, and investors with uncertain cash needs may be forced to sell at a discount.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Illiquid Assets shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Illiquid Assets questions