Skip to content

ACCA Strategic Professional · Strategic Business Reporting (International) · Financial instruments

Halden plc has a loan receivable with a gross carrying amount of $1,000,000 at amortised cost, effective interest rate 8%. It is credit-impaired at the start of the year with a loss allowance of $300,000. During the year, no cash is received. Halden reports to the period end with the allowance unchanged. What interest revenue is recognised for the year?

Interest revenue is $56,000, being 8% of the net carrying amount of $700,000. For credit-impaired assets in stage 3, the effective interest rate is applied to amortised cost after deducting the loss allowance, not to the gross carrying amount.

  1. A$56,000Correct
  2. B$80,000
  3. C$24,000
  4. D$0

Explanation

For a credit-impaired (stage 3) asset, interest revenue is calculated on the amortised cost net of the allowance: ($1,000,000 − $300,000) × 8% = $56,000. Using the gross amount gives $80,000, which is the stage 1 and 2 treatment.

Did you get it right without looking?

One question tells you little. A timed set on Financial instruments shows your real accuracy, how long you take and where you lose marks.

More Financial instruments questions